Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

My dog is 2 weeks old. He's not eating, moving and always sleeping and I can't take him to a vet. What should I do?

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If Russia needs the resources to fund the war in Ukraine, why doesn’t it throw open its doors to visa free western tourism? Enough people would be interested, & it would start to get some hard currency as €, CHF, £, SEK, $, JPY in the tills at shops.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

I am so tired of ignorant people like you calling us far rights, why democrats is so educated, they take things from their own mouth, you guys are totalitarian party?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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